“Dark ages” is still applicable for the early Medieval period
Do you think that the term “dark ages” is still applicable for the early Medieval period? Why or why not? Include examples that support your opinion.
Sample Answer
Whether the term “Dark Ages” is still applicable for the Early Medieval period is a complex question with a nuanced answer. Increasingly, historians argue that it is not an accurate or helpful descriptor and should be largely abandoned. This is because the term carries negative connotations of intellectual stagnation, societal decline, and cultural backwardness that don’t accurately reflect the complexities and developments of the era.
Here’s a breakdown of why the term is problematic and examples that support this view:
Why “Dark Ages” is Inaccurate and Misleading:
- It’s a Product of a Later Era: The term “Dark Ages” largely originated during the Renaissance (14th-16th centuries) and the Enlightenment (18th century). These periods saw themselves as a rebirth of classical Greek and Roman learning and often denigrated the preceding centuries as a time of ignorance and barbarism in contrast to their own “enlightened” age. It was a rhetorical tool to highlight their perceived progress.