Berger's argument, why might one generalize that "men act and women appear"?

1. According to Berger's argument, why might one generalize that "men act and women appear"?

How is this similar to the idea that women constantly survey themselves?

1. Why are the repercussions of the "Fall" of Adam and Eve, which Berger sees as implicit in much European painting (and in culture generally), problematic for women?
2. How does Berger interpret the Venus and Cupid painting from Lely?
3. What is the distinction Berger makes between "naked" and "nude"?
4. Why do nudes in general, as Berger implies, have "nothing to do" with a women's sexuality?
5. What is the "contradiction" implicit in the artistic tradition of the nude, according to Berger?